Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a bronchoscopy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• B. Blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg
• C. Coughing up small amounts of sputum
• D. Absent gag reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absent gag reflex is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent aspiration. This can lead to the aspiration of oral or gastric contents into the lungs, potentially causing serious respiratory complications. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range, a blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg is also within normal limits, and coughing up small amounts of sputum is an expected finding after a bronchoscopy procedure.

3. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg SC every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subq every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• D. Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr. PRN for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Loose stools.
• B. Jitteriness.
• C. Hypertonia.
• D. Abdominal distention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.

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