a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel which of the following instructions should the nurse in
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to monitor for black, tarry stools while taking clopidogrel. This is important because it helps detect gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid foods high in fat while taking clopidogrel. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice interaction is not a concern with clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as clopidogrel can be taken with or without food.

2. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient who is refusing medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses medication, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the reasons for refusal. This allows the provider to understand the patient's concerns, provide education or clarification if needed, and work collaboratively with the patient to find a solution. Exploring alternative treatment options may be necessary after understanding the reasons behind the refusal. Documenting the refusal is important for legal and continuity of care purposes, but it is not the initial action to take. Discontinuing the medication without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to potential harm and is not a recommended approach.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.

4. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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