how should a nurse manage a patient with chronic heart failure
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is crucial in managing patients with chronic heart failure as it helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to detect any sudden weight gain, which could indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This intervention helps in adjusting treatment plans promptly. Providing fluid restriction (Choice B) can be a part of managing heart failure but is not the primary intervention mentioned in the question. Administering diuretics (Choice C) is a treatment modality for heart failure but does not encompass the comprehensive approach to patient management. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not specifically address the direct assessment of fluid status as daily weight monitoring does.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about measures to take when caring for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct measure to include when caring for a client on contact precautions is to wear gloves when providing care. Gloves help prevent the spread of infection and cross-contamination. Choice A is incorrect because the protective gown should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as clients on contact precautions should be in a room with negative pressure to prevent the spread of airborne contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask when changing linens is not specifically required for contact precautions.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen is an NSAID that can increase the risk of bleeding during a colonoscopy due to its effects on platelet function. It is important to report this finding to the provider to consider alternative pain management options. Choices B, C, and D are not the most pertinent to report for a colonoscopy. Asthma and a history of diverticulitis are relevant medical history but do not directly impact the colonoscopy procedure. Drinking one glass of wine daily is not a concern specifically related to the colonoscopy procedure.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions because it rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and relaxing airway muscles. Corticosteroids, although helpful to reduce inflammation, are not the priority in the acute management of severe allergic reactions. Oxygen may be needed to support breathing, but it is not the initial priority. Antihistamines are not as effective as epinephrine in treating severe allergic reactions and should not be the first intervention.

5. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

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