ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Low-protein diet
- B. High-protein diet
- C. Low-sodium diet
- D. High-sodium diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a low-sodium diet. Patients with chronic kidney disease are often advised to follow a low-sodium diet to help manage fluid retention. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, causing complications for individuals with kidney issues. Choices A and B are incorrect because while protein intake may need to be monitored in kidney disease, the primary focus is typically on sodium restriction. Choice D is incorrect as a high-sodium diet would exacerbate fluid retention in patients with chronic kidney disease.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased muscle strength.
- C. Diarrhea.
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
4. During an in-service about nursing leadership, what information should the nurse include about an effective leader?
- A. Acts as an advocate for the nursing unit.
- B. Prioritizes staff requests over client needs.
- C. Shares personal opinions to influence the group's values.
- D. Provides routine client care and documentation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An effective leader advocates for the unit's success and its members. Choice B is incorrect because prioritizing staff requests over client needs does not align with effective leadership, which should focus on client-centered care. Choice C is incorrect as sharing personal opinions to influence the group's values can be biased and may not reflect the best interest of the team. Choice D is incorrect because while providing client care is essential, effective leadership involves more than routine tasks and includes guiding and supporting the team.
5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Sleep with the head of the bed elevated.
- B. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.
- C. Eat three large meals each day.
- D. Lie down after eating.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid drinking fluids with meals. This is because consuming fluids while eating can exacerbate reflux symptoms by increasing stomach distension and contributing to the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. Option A is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help prevent reflux during sleep, not while drinking fluids. Option C is incorrect as consuming three large meals a day can worsen GERD symptoms due to increased gastric distension. Option D is incorrect as lying down after eating can also worsen GERD symptoms by promoting the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.
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