Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to have my blood levels checked regularly while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. I should avoid eating foods that are high in sodium.
• D. I should stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients prescribed lithium need regular monitoring of blood levels to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. This monitoring helps to keep the medication within the therapeutic range and prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because lithium is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is not directly related to lithium therapy; however, excessive sodium intake can affect lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping lithium can lead to adverse effects and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance.

2. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

3. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and has developed stomatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

• A. Eat salty foods to stimulate salivation.
• B. Avoid spicy foods.
• C. Increase intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Consume cold foods to soothe the mucosa.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct choice: Consume cold foods to soothe the mucosa. Cold foods can help soothe the mucosa and reduce discomfort for patients with stomatitis caused by chemotherapy.\nIncorrect choices: A) Salty foods may irritate the mucosa further. B) Spicy foods can increase discomfort and irritation. C) High-fiber foods may be rough and abrasive, exacerbating the condition.

4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Sleep with the head of the bed elevated.
• B. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.
• C. Eat three large meals each day.
• D. Lie down after eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid drinking fluids with meals. This is because consuming fluids while eating can exacerbate reflux symptoms by increasing stomach distension and contributing to the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. Option A is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help prevent reflux during sleep, not while drinking fluids. Option C is incorrect as consuming three large meals a day can worsen GERD symptoms due to increased gastric distension. Option D is incorrect as lying down after eating can also worsen GERD symptoms by promoting the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

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