Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips.
• B. Red, swollen gums.
• C. White patches on the tongue.
• D. Pale, dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

2. A client who is 14 weeks of gestation reports swelling of the face. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer an analgesic.
• B. Report this finding to the provider immediately.
• C. Administer an antiemetic.
• D. Monitor the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to report this finding to the provider immediately. Swelling of the face in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the client and the fetus. Administering an analgesic (choice A) is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the underlying cause of the swelling. Administering an antiemetic (choice C) is used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not the primary concerns associated with facial swelling in this scenario. Monitoring the client's vital signs (choice D) is important but should be done after reporting the finding to the provider to guide further assessment and management.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased level of consciousness
• B. Inability to identify common objects
• C. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
• D. Poor problem-solving ability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to identify common objects. Clients with schizophrenia often experience cognitive deficits, such as difficulty in identifying common objects. This can be attributed to impairments in perception and cognition. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head injuries or metabolic disturbances. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders, not schizophrenia. Poor problem-solving ability is a characteristic of conditions affecting executive functioning like dementia, rather than schizophrenia.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my intake of bananas.
• B. I will limit my intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. I will increase my intake of protein-rich foods.
• D. I will increase my intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

5. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
• D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

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