Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased WBC count.
• B. Decreased hemoglobin.
• C. Decreased platelet count.
• D. Positive rheumatoid factor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive rheumatoid factor. A positive rheumatoid factor is a common laboratory finding in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, indicating an autoimmune response. Option A, increased WBC count, is not typically associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B, decreased hemoglobin, and option C, decreased platelet count, are not specific laboratory findings for rheumatoid arthritis.

2. A client is receiving discharge teaching regarding a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will eat more leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
• B. I will have my INR checked regularly while taking warfarin.
• C. I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking warfarin.
• D. I will use a soft toothbrush while taking warfarin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables as they are high in vitamin K, which can reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Therefore, the statement 'I will eat more leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin' indicates a need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as regular monitoring of INR levels is necessary for clients on warfarin. Choice C is correct as grapefruit juice can interact with warfarin and should be avoided. Choice D is correct as using a soft toothbrush is recommended to prevent gum bleeding while on warfarin.

3. A patient is being cared for by a nurse who has a history of angina and is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with a history of angina experiencing chest pain, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. This helps in assessing for myocardial infarction, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important interventions but obtaining the ECG comes first to determine the presence of myocardial infarction and guide further management.

4. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low-protein diet
• B. High-protein diet
• C. Low-sodium diet
• D. High-sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-sodium diet. Patients with chronic kidney disease are often advised to follow a low-sodium diet to help manage fluid retention. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, causing complications for individuals with kidney issues. Choices A and B are incorrect because while protein intake may need to be monitored in kidney disease, the primary focus is typically on sodium restriction. Choice D is incorrect as a high-sodium diet would exacerbate fluid retention in patients with chronic kidney disease.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

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