Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a nine-second duration, and the fetal heart rate is 170 to 180 beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing frequent contractions with a short duration and an elevated fetal heart rate, indicating potential fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications and restore normal fetal parameters. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion could exacerbate the situation, leading to more distress for the fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the current issue and could delay the improvement of fetal well-being.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following tests is an indicator of long-term blood glucose control?

• A. Fasting blood glucose
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
• C. Random blood glucose
• D. Postprandial blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). HbA1c provides a measure of long-term blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test reflects the average blood glucose levels during this period, making it a valuable tool in managing diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of long-term blood glucose control. Fasting blood glucose measures the current glucose level after a period of not eating, random blood glucose provides a snapshot of the current glucose level, and postprandial blood glucose measures the glucose level after a meal.

3. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT levels
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor INR levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

4. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

• A. Administer IV glucose
• B. Administer oral glucose
• C. Check blood sugar in 15 minutes
• D. Provide a high-calorie snack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia is to administer oral glucose. Oral glucose is usually sufficient for treating mild hypoglycemia and can be administered quickly and easily. Administering IV glucose (Choice A) is reserved for severe cases where the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious. Checking blood sugar in 15 minutes (Choice C) is important but providing glucose should come first. Providing a high-calorie snack (Choice D) may not be as rapidly effective as administering oral glucose in quickly raising blood sugar levels in a patient experiencing hypoglycemia.

5. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
• B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
• C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
• D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

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