Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a nine-second duration, and the fetal heart rate is 170 to 180 beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing frequent contractions with a short duration and an elevated fetal heart rate, indicating potential fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications and restore normal fetal parameters. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion could exacerbate the situation, leading to more distress for the fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the current issue and could delay the improvement of fetal well-being.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight loss.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Dry cough.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid backup in the body. This fluid retention commonly manifests as peripheral edema, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; bradycardia (slow heart rate) is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or athletes, not specifically in right-sided heart failure; and a dry cough is more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, not typically with right-sided heart failure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in a seclusion room following violent behavior. The client continues to display aggressive behavior. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Confront the client about this behavior
• B. Express sympathy for the client's situation
• C. Speak assertively to the client
• D. Stand within 30 cm (1 ft) of the client when speaking with them

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, speaking assertively is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Confronting the client may escalate the situation further. Expressing sympathy, although important in other contexts, may not be effective in managing aggressive behavior. Standing within close proximity to an aggressive client can compromise the nurse's safety. Therefore, speaking assertively helps to set clear boundaries and manage the situation while ensuring safety in a seclusion room.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the following?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated unilaterally
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Client-reported improvement in anxiety is an indication of effective treatment for pulmonary embolism. Choice A is incorrect as increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate complications or lack of improvement. Choice C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds auscultated unilaterally may suggest a localized lung issue and not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG results provided do not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

Similar Questions