ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
2. Which of the following is not a cause of tachycardia?
- A. Fever
- B. Exercise
- C. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
- D. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tachycardia is an increased heart rate, and it can be caused by various factors such as fever, exercise, and sympathetic nervous system stimulation, all of which tend to increase heart rate. However, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation typically slows the heart rate, making it the exception among the choices provided. Thus, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation is not a cause of tachycardia.
3. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
4. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
- A. Non-rebreather mask
- B. Venturi mask
- C. Nasal cannula
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
5. What term refers to the manner of walking?
- A. Gait
- B. Range of motion
- C. Flexion and extension
- D. Hopping
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gait specifically refers to the manner in which a person walks. It encompasses the pattern, rhythm, and style of walking, making it the most appropriate term in this context. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, flexion and extension relate to bending and straightening movements at a joint, and hopping is a specific type of movement that involves jumping on one foot.
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