Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.

2. Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:

• A. IM injection or an IV solution
• B. IV or an intradermal injection
• C. Intradermal or subcutaneous injection
• D. IM or a subcutaneous injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Penicillin can be administered intramuscularly or intravenously.

3. Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?

• A. There are contraindications for this test
• B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
• C. A signed consent is not required
• D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.

4. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
• C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
• D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.

5. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?

• A. Side rails are ineffective
• B. Side rails should not be used
• C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevents a patient from falling out of bed
• D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct conclusion drawn from the study is that side rails serve as a reminder to the patient not to get out of bed rather than being a fail-proof preventive measure against falls. While they may not entirely prevent falls, they play a role in prompting the patient to be cautious when moving.

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