ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?
- A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to swallow than water
- B. Fowler’s or semi Fowler’s position reduces the risk of aspiration during swallowing
- C. The patient should always feed himself
- D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The incorrect statement is that 'The patient should always feed himself.' Patients with dysphagia may require assistance with feeding due to difficulty in swallowing safely. It is essential to provide appropriate support and supervision during meal times to prevent complications such as aspiration or inadequate nutrition intake.
2. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
3. What is the primary goal of performing a bed bath?
- A. To cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to the client who must remain in bed
- B. To expose the necessary parts of the body
- C. To develop skills in bed bath
- D. To check the body temperature of the client in bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of performing a bed bath is to cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to clients who are unable to leave their bed. This helps maintain their hygiene, promotes skin health, and enhances their overall well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose is not to expose body parts but to provide hygiene and comfort. Choice C is incorrect as the main goal is client care, not skill development. Choice D is incorrect as checking body temperature is not the main purpose of a bed bath.
4. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?
- A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
- B. Waist tie in front of the gown
- C. Cuffs of the gown
- D. Inside of the gown
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.
5. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
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