ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the meaning of PRN?
- A. When advice
- B. Immediately
- C. When necessary
- D. Now
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'
2. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.
3. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?
- A. Gender
- B. Environmental allergies
- C. Alcohol
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.
4. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:
- A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
- B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
- C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
- D. Chicken bouillon
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.
5. A client is being instructed on the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will place the adapter on my finger to read my blood oxygen saturation level.''
- B. ''I will lie on my back with my knees bent.''
- C. ''I will rest my hand over my abdomen to create resistance.''
- D. ''I will take in a deep breath and hold it before exhaling.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates an understanding of the proper technique for using an incentive spirometer. Incentive spirometry helps to improve lung function by encouraging deep breathing and sustaining the inhalation to fully expand the lungs. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct instructions for using an incentive spirometer.
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