Nursing Elites

1. What is the meaning of PRN?

• A. When advice
• B. Immediately
• C. When necessary
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'

2. Which of the following parameters should be checked when assessing respirations?

• A. Rate
• B. Rhythm
• C. Symmetry
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing respirations, it is essential to evaluate the rate at which breaths are taken, the rhythm of breathing patterns, and the symmetry of chest expansion. Each of these parameters provides valuable information about a person's respiratory status. Therefore, it is important to assess all of the listed parameters to have a comprehensive understanding of the individual's respiratory function.

3. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
• C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
• D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.

4. When is sterile technique used?

• A. During strict isolation procedures
• B. After terminal disinfection is performed
• C. For invasive procedures
• D. When protective isolation is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.

5. What is another name for the knee-chest position?

• A. Genu-dorsal
• B. Genu-pectoral
• C. Lithotomy
• D. Sim’s

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.

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