ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?
- A. Prothrombin and coagulation time
- B. Blood typing and cross-matching
- C. Bleeding and clotting time
- D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.
2. When applying Nagele's rule, a healthcare professional is estimating a client's expected date of delivery based on their last menstrual period, which began on April 12th. What date should the healthcare professional determine to be the client's expected delivery date? (Use mmdd format.)
- A. 119
- B. 121
- C. 115
- D. 122
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the expected delivery date using Nagele's rule, begin by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period (April 12th), which results in January 12th. Then, add 7 days. Therefore, the expected delivery date would be January 19th (0119). This calculation method helps healthcare professionals estimate the client's due date.
3. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse documents this finding as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Hyperpyrexia
- C. Arrhythmia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse finds a client's pulse rate to be above normal, it is documented as tachycardia. Tachycardia specifically refers to an elevated heart rate, while tachypnea is rapid breathing, hyperpyrexia is high fever, and arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. Therefore, the correct term to describe an above-normal pulse rate is tachycardia.
4. What is another name for the knee-chest position?
- A. Genu-dorsal
- B. Genu-pectoral
- C. Lithotomy
- D. Sim’s
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.
5. A client has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is not an expected finding?
- A. Impulse control difficulty
- B. Left hemiplegia
- C. Loss of depth perception
- D. Aphasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a right-hemispheric stroke, the expected findings include left-sided hemiplegia (Choice B), loss of depth perception (Choice C), and impulse control difficulty (Choice A). Aphasia (Choice D) is typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes. Therefore, aphasia is not an expected finding in a client who has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke.
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