Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?

• A. Prothrombin and coagulation time
• B. Blood typing and cross-matching
• C. Bleeding and clotting time
• D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased creatinine.
• B. Increased hemoglobin.
• C. Increased bicarbonate.
• D. Increased calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to an accumulation of creatinine. Creatinine levels are commonly elevated in individuals with impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator of kidney health. Therefore, an increased creatinine level would be an expected finding in a client with chronic kidney disease.

3. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Chlamydia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Deviation of the trachea
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

5. A client has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area.
• B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes.
• C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area.
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaper dermatitis, also known as diaper rash, is a common condition in babies or clients who wear diapers. The primary intervention for diaper dermatitis is to apply a protective barrier cream, such as zinc oxide ointment, to the irritated area. This helps to protect the skin from irritants and promotes healing. Wiping stool from the skin using baby wipes may further irritate the skin, and talcum powder is no longer recommended due to potential respiratory risks when inhaled. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area.

Similar Questions