Nursing Elites

1. If a patient asks the nurse for her opinion about a particular physician and the nurse replies that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for:

• A. Slander
• B. Libel
• C. Assault
• D. Respondent superior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse makes a false verbal statement about the physician being incompetent, it is considered slander. Slander is the act of making defamatory spoken statements or gestures. Libel, on the other hand, refers to defamatory statements that are written or published. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, and respondent superior is a legal doctrine holding an employer responsible for the actions of an employee in the course of employment.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the healthcare provider identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary congestion is a common manifestation of left-sided heart failure. When the left side of the heart fails, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. This can result in symptoms such as frothy, pink-tinged sputum due to the presence of blood in the respiratory secretions. Jugular vein distention, weight gain, and bradypnea are also associated with heart failure, but frothy, pink sputum specifically indicates pulmonary congestion in this scenario.

3. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?

• A. Non-rebreather mask
• B. Venturi mask
• C. Nasal cannula
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.

4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

5. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?

• A. Fowler’s position
• B. Side-lying
• C. Supine
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.

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