Nursing Elites

1. During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to assume which position?

• A. Sitting
• B. Standing
• C. Genupectoral
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to stand with feet together and arms at the sides. The test evaluates proprioception and vestibular function by assessing the patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed. Asking the patient to stand helps to detect any balance issues or disturbances in the absence of visual input.

2. Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing

• A. Baseline vital signs
• B. Systolic blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Apical pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing the apical pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI), which is typically at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. This technique allows healthcare providers to accurately assess the heart rate and rhythm by listening to the heart sounds directly at this point.

3. A client is being instructed on how to perform pursed-lip breathing. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Take quick breaths upon inhalation.
• B. Place your hand over your stomach.
• C. Take a deep breath in through your nose.
• D. Puff your cheeks upon exhalation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a breathing technique that involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling gently through pursed lips. This technique helps improve breathing efficiency and can be beneficial for individuals with respiratory conditions. Instructing the client to take a deep breath in through the nose is essential for proper execution of pursed-lip breathing, making choice C the correct answer.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

5. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

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