Nursing Elites

1. During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to assume which position?

• A. Sitting
• B. Standing
• C. Genupectoral
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to stand with feet together and arms at the sides. The test evaluates proprioception and vestibular function by assessing the patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed. Asking the patient to stand helps to detect any balance issues or disturbances in the absence of visual input.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.

3. When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?

• A. Early in the morning
• B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
• C. After aerosol therapy
• D. After chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a sputum specimen early in the morning is the most appropriate time because secretions have accumulated overnight. This timing provides the best sample with the least contamination, leading to more accurate culture results and aiding in diagnosing respiratory infections effectively.

4. When teaching a client with tuberculosis, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. You will need to continue taking the multi-medication regimen for 4 months.
• B. You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication.
• C. You will need to remain hospitalized for treatment.
• D. You will need to wear a mask at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring the effectiveness of tuberculosis medication is crucial to ensure the treatment is working properly. Regular sputum samples help in assessing the response to the medication. This monitoring can guide adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Options A and C are incorrect as they do not reflect essential aspects of tuberculosis treatment. Option D is not a standard recommendation for tuberculosis treatment and may lead to misconceptions.

5. A client with fibromyalgia requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Pregabalin
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Colchicine
• D. Codeine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pregabalin is commonly used to manage pain associated with fibromyalgia. It works by reducing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, not pain management. Colchicine is primarily used for gout treatment, and codeine, while an analgesic, is not typically the first-line choice for fibromyalgia pain due to its potential for side effects and misuse.

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