Nursing Elites

1. During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to assume which position?

• A. Sitting
• B. Standing
• C. Genupectoral
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to stand with feet together and arms at the sides. The test evaluates proprioception and vestibular function by assessing the patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed. Asking the patient to stand helps to detect any balance issues or disturbances in the absence of visual input.

2. A nurse manager is reviewing documentation with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following notations by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''OOB with assistance for breakfast''
• B. ''Given 2 mg MSO4 IM for report of pain''
• C. ''Dressing changed qd''
• D. ''Administered 8 units of regular insulin subcutaneously''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates proper documentation by specifying the action taken ('Administered'), the dose ('8 units'), the medication ('regular insulin'), and the route of administration ('subcutaneously'). This notation ensures clarity and accuracy in recording the nursing intervention, aligning with best practices in documentation.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
• B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
• C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• D. Obtain a chest x-ray

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.

4. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Antiviral
• D. Beta2 agonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?

• A. Have suction equipment available for use
• B. Feed the client thickened liquids
• C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
• D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.

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