ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can substitute one medication for another if I run out because they all fight infection.
- B. I will wash my hands each time I cough.
- C. I am glad I don't have to have any more sputum specimens.
- D. I don't need to worry about where I go once I start taking my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.
2. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
3. When a chest tube is accidentally removed from a client, which of the following actions should the nurse NOT take first?
- A. Obtain a chest x-ray
- B. Apply sterile gauze to the insertion site
- C. Place tape around the insertion site
- D. Assess respiratory status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a chest tube is accidentally removed, the priority action for the nurse is to immediately seal the insertion site with a gloved hand, a sterile occlusive dressing, or petroleum gauze to prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. Applying sterile gauze to the insertion site is not the correct initial action. The first step is to prevent respiratory compromise by ensuring the site is sealed. Therefore, the nurse should not apply sterile gauze to the insertion site first.
4. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?
- A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
- B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
- C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
- D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.
5. A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?
- A. Complain to her fellow nurses
- B. Wait until she knows more about the unit
- C. Discuss the problem with her supervisor
- D. Inform the staff that they must volunteer to rotate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor. This is the most appropriate action as the supervisor is in a position to address staffing concerns effectively and make necessary changes. Complaining to fellow nurses may not lead to a solution, waiting may exacerbate the issue, and demanding staff rotation without proper discussion is not a collaborative approach to resolving the problem.
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