ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours.
- B. Place the client in a supine position while resting.
- C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, cardiac rehabilitation is crucial for the client's recovery. It helps improve the client's overall cardiovascular health, reduces the risk of future cardiac events, and promotes a healthy lifestyle. The other options do not directly address the importance of cardiac rehabilitation in the client's recovery process.
2. What is another name for the knee-chest position?
- A. Genu-dorsal
- B. Genu-pectoral
- C. Lithotomy
- D. Sim’s
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.
3. When is additional Vitamin C not required?
- A. Infancy
- B. Young adulthood
- C. Childhood
- D. Pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin C requirements are increased during infancy, childhood, and pregnancy due to growth and development. However, during young adulthood, the body generally requires a consistent amount of Vitamin C as it is not undergoing rapid growth or physiological changes that necessitate an increase in Vitamin C intake.
4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
5. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for drops?
- A. Gtt.
- B. Gtts.
- C. Dp.
- D. Dr.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct abbreviation for drops in medical terminology is 'Gtt.' It is derived from the Latin word 'guttae,' meaning drops. The abbreviation 'Gtts.' (Choice B) is incorrect as it adds an unnecessary 's.' Choices C and D, 'Dp.' and 'Dr.,' are not standard abbreviations for drops in medical contexts, making them incorrect.
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