ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours.
- B. Place the client in a supine position while resting.
- C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, cardiac rehabilitation is crucial for the client's recovery. It helps improve the client's overall cardiovascular health, reduces the risk of future cardiac events, and promotes a healthy lifestyle. The other options do not directly address the importance of cardiac rehabilitation in the client's recovery process.
2. When applying Nagele's rule, a healthcare professional is estimating a client's expected date of delivery based on their last menstrual period, which began on April 12th. What date should the healthcare professional determine to be the client's expected delivery date? (Use mmdd format.)
- A. 119
- B. 121
- C. 115
- D. 122
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the expected delivery date using Nagele's rule, begin by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period (April 12th), which results in January 12th. Then, add 7 days. Therefore, the expected delivery date would be January 19th (0119). This calculation method helps healthcare professionals estimate the client's due date.
3. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?
- A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air
- B. Self-perception
- C. Love and belonging
- D. Physiological needs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orem's theory, also known as the Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory, focuses on individuals' ability to perform self-care to maintain health and well-being. One specific component of this theory is the maintenance of a sufficient intake of air, which is crucial for sustaining life and overall health. Option A is the correct choice as it directly relates to meeting physiological needs, such as the intake of air, to support optimal functioning and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically align with Orem's emphasis on self-care and meeting physiological requirements.
4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
5. A client with fibromyalgia requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Pregabalin
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Colchicine
- D. Codeine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pregabalin is commonly used to manage pain associated with fibromyalgia. It works by reducing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, not pain management. Colchicine is primarily used for gout treatment, and codeine, while an analgesic, is not typically the first-line choice for fibromyalgia pain due to its potential for side effects and misuse.
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