Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
• B. FACES pain scale.
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

2. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?

• A. Oxygen equipment
• B. Incentive spirometer
• C. Pulse oximeter
• D. Sterile dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Antiviral
• D. Beta2 agonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

4. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
• B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
• C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
• D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

5. A client with tuberculosis is receiving a new prescription for isoniazid (INH). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. You might notice yellowing of your skin.
• B. You might experience pain in your joints.
• C. You might notice tingling of your hands.
• D. You might experience loss of appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling of the hands is a common adverse effect of isoniazid (INH) due to its potential to cause peripheral neuropathy. This sensation can be an early sign of nerve damage, and thus, the client should be instructed to report it promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

Similar Questions