ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?
- A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
- B. FACES pain scale.
- C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
- D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.
2. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
- A. 5 gtt/minute
- B. 13 gtt/minute
- C. 25 gtt/minute
- D. 50 gtt/minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour รท 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.
3. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for drops?
- A. Gtt.
- B. Gtts.
- C. Dp.
- D. Dr.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct abbreviation for drops in medical terminology is 'Gtt.' It is derived from the Latin word 'guttae,' meaning drops. The abbreviation 'Gtts.' (Choice B) is incorrect as it adds an unnecessary 's.' Choices C and D, 'Dp.' and 'Dr.,' are not standard abbreviations for drops in medical contexts, making them incorrect.
4. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
5. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
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