Nursing Elites

1. Before rigor mortis occurs, what is the nurse responsible for?

• A. Providing a complete bath and dressing change
• B. Placing one pillow under the body’s head and shoulders
• C. Removing the body’s clothing and wrapping the body in a shroud
• D. Allowing the body to relax normally

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for placing a pillow under the body's head and shoulders. This action helps maintain proper positioning, prevent postmortem changes, and ensure a dignified appearance. Providing a complete bath and dressing change, removing clothing, or wrapping the body in a shroud are tasks typically performed after rigor mortis sets in or later in the postmortem care process. Allowing the body to relax normally does not address the immediate need for proper positioning before rigor mortis occurs.

2. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

3. What is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?

• A. Parkinson’s disease
• B. Multiple sclerosis
• C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
• D. Alzheimer’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. While Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are serious conditions, they are not typically associated with dementia in the same way Alzheimer’s disease is. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

5. A patient requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Shoulder presentation
• C. Postterm with oligohydramnios
• D. Chorioamnionitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postterm pregnancy with oligohydramnios is a contraindication for the use of oxytocin due to the increased risk of uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. Oxytocin can further stress the fetus in this scenario, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to recognize this contraindication to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby during labor.

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