Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client's potassium level is 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer sodium bicarbonate
• B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. Administer calcium gluconate
• D. Administer calcium carbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia by promoting the excretion of potassium. Choice A, administering sodium bicarbonate, is incorrect as it is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering calcium gluconate, is incorrect as it is used to treat hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia. Choice D, administering calcium carbonate, is incorrect as it is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and indigestion, not hyperkalemia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movement, which is appropriate for a postpartum client experiencing constipation. Magnesium hydroxide (choice B) is an antacid and not indicated for constipation. Famotidine (choice C) is an H2 receptor antagonist used for reducing stomach acid production, not for constipation. Loperamide (choice D) is an antidiarrheal agent and would worsen constipation in this case.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the test.
• B. You should drink 8 oz of water 1 hour before the test.
• C. You should take an antacid before the test.
• D. You should drink a glass of milk 1 hour before the test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the glucose tolerance test to ensure accurate results. Choice A is the correct instruction for the client preparing for a glucose tolerance test. Drinking water, taking an antacid, or consuming milk before the test can interfere with the accuracy of the results. Water or any other substance might affect the concentration of glucose in the blood, leading to inaccurate test results. Antacids and milk can also interfere with the test outcome. Therefore, the client should follow the instruction to fast for 8 hours before the test.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
• C. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• D. INR of 2.0

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

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