Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with fluid overload?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Provide oral fluids
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics. Diuretics help reduce excess fluid in cases of fluid overload, making it the priority intervention. Administering additional IV fluids (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by adding more fluid. Providing oral fluids (choice C) is not the priority as the excess fluid needs to be removed first. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not the primary intervention for fluid overload.

3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is the appropriate intervention when caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing mania. During manic episodes, individuals often exhibit hyperactivity and may become exhausted. Rest periods can help reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Spending time in the day room may not address the client's need for rest, withdrawing TV privileges is not directly related to managing mania symptoms, and placing the client in seclusion when anxious can escalate the situation rather than promoting a calming environment.

4. A patient is 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer aspirin for pain management.
• B. Keep the affected leg in a dependent position.
• C. Flex the affected knee for 2 to 3 minutes every hour.
• D. Apply ice packs to the affected knee.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for a client 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty is to apply ice packs to the affected knee. Ice packs help reduce swelling and pain in such clients. Administering aspirin is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding postoperatively. Keeping the affected leg in a dependent position can impair circulation and increase the risk of complications. Flexing the affected knee for extended periods can strain the surgical site and hinder the healing process.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Potassium level
• C. Creatinine clearance
• D. Prealbumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. Platelet count helps assess clotting abnormalities that could cause petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae and ecchymoses are often associated with bleeding disorders, so it is crucial to evaluate the platelet count to determine if there is a deficiency in platelets. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because potassium level, creatinine clearance, and prealbumin do not directly relate to assessing clotting abnormalities associated with petechiae and ecchymoses.

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