a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and is receiving heparin therapy which test should the nurse use to monitor and regulate t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevents clogs. Choice B is incorrect because enteral feedings should be administered using a gravity drip method or a pump, not through a large-bore syringe. Choice C is incorrect because the head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because the feeding bag should be replaced every 24 hours to prevent bacterial contamination.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is to consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and helps reduce IBS symptoms by aiding digestion and preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate IBS symptoms in some individuals due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen IBS symptoms as it may cause bloating and gas. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten may also be problematic for individuals with IBS as gluten-containing foods can trigger symptoms like abdominal pain and diarrhea.

5. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.

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