ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Hypertension
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.
2. What is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps alleviate respiratory distress and improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen levels in the blood due to the obstruction in the pulmonary circulation caused by the embolism. Administering anticoagulants (choice B) is a treatment for confirmed pulmonary embolism rather than a suspected case. Repositioning the patient (choice C) or administering bronchodilators (choice D) would not directly address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange and oxygen delivery associated with pulmonary embolism.
3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
- B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
- C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
- D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.
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