ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Hypertension
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Infuse the PRBCs over 8 hours.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the PRBCs through a 24-gauge catheter.
- D. Administer the PRBCs with lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.
3. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Pallor
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.
5. A client with osteoporosis should be encouraged to perform which of the following interventions as part of the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to increase calcium intake.
- B. Apply heat to the affected joints to reduce stiffness.
- C. Encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss.
- D. Limit fluid intake to prevent swelling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Weight-bearing exercises help to strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not the priority intervention for preventing bone loss in osteoporosis. Applying heat to affected joints (Choice B) may help with stiffness but does not address the underlying bone loss in osteoporosis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is not relevant to managing osteoporosis and preventing bone loss.
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