ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
- B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
- C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with removal
- D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma to the client. Choice B is incorrect because stimulating peristalsis is not the appropriate action for digitally evacuating stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen can be uncomfortable and ineffective. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the digital evacuation procedure.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased skin turgor.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Bounding pulse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?
- A. Constipation.
- B. Drowsiness.
- C. Orthostatic hypotension.
- D. Respiratory depression.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.
4. A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being discharged. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with food.
- B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- C. I should avoid crowded places while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication until my symptoms resolve.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking prednisone should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to immunosuppression. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone is usually prescribed for a specific duration and not for life. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, which may not always align with symptom resolution.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.
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