ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.
3. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your sodium intake to 3,000 mg per day.
- B. Exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week.
- C. Sleep for at least 10 hours each night.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week." Regular exercise helps promote cardiovascular health and manage hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension. Choice C is incorrect because while sleep is important, excessive sleep duration is not typically part of hypertension management. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be adequate unless advised otherwise by a healthcare provider.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.
5. What is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps alleviate respiratory distress and improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen levels in the blood due to the obstruction in the pulmonary circulation caused by the embolism. Administering anticoagulants (choice B) is a treatment for confirmed pulmonary embolism rather than a suspected case. Repositioning the patient (choice C) or administering bronchodilators (choice D) would not directly address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange and oxygen delivery associated with pulmonary embolism.
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