a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for furosemide which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teac
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern in patients receiving loop diuretics?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia (Choice C). Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a common concern with loop diuretic therapy and necessitates regular monitoring. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with loop diuretics but with conditions like renal failure. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is more common with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical concern with loop diuretic use.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to monitor for black, tarry stools while taking clopidogrel. This is important because it helps detect gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid foods high in fat while taking clopidogrel. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice interaction is not a concern with clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as clopidogrel can be taken with or without food.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps alleviate respiratory distress and improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen levels in the blood due to the obstruction in the pulmonary circulation caused by the embolism. Administering anticoagulants (choice B) is a treatment for confirmed pulmonary embolism rather than a suspected case. Repositioning the patient (choice C) or administering bronchodilators (choice D) would not directly address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange and oxygen delivery associated with pulmonary embolism.

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