Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will decrease my potassium levels.
• B. I should eat a banana every day to increase my potassium intake.
• C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience a cough.
• D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

2. A client is immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following positions should the nurse maintain for the client?

• A. Supine with legs extended
• B. Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent
• C. Lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs
• D. Prone with legs elevated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty is the lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs. This position helps prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis and maintains proper alignment of the hip joint. Supine position with legs extended (Choice A) may put stress on the hip joint, Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and alignment, and prone position with legs elevated (Choice D) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it can compromise the surgical site and increase the risk of complications.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a dry dressing.
• B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline.
• C. Perform debridement as needed.
• D. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. For a stage 2 pressure injury, maintaining a moist environment is crucial for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help achieve this by promoting autolytic debridement and creating a barrier against bacteria while allowing the wound to heal. Applying a dry dressing (Choice A) may not provide the necessary moisture for healing. Cleansing the wound with normal saline (Choice B) is essential, but a hydrocolloid dressing is more specific for promoting healing in this case. Performing debridement as needed (Choice C) is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, as they involve partial-thickness skin loss without slough or eschar.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage kidney disease. The client's adult child asks the nurse about becoming a living kidney donor for her father. Which of the following conditions in the child's medical history should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the procedure?

• A. Amputation.
• B. Osteoarthritis.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Primary glaucoma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a contraindication for kidney donation because it can negatively impact the donor's health in the long term. Hypertension poses risks during and after the donation procedure, such as affecting kidney function and potentially leading to complications for both the donor and the recipient. Amputation, osteoarthritis, and primary glaucoma are not direct contraindications for kidney donation and would not typically prevent someone from being a living kidney donor.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

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