ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will decrease my potassium levels.
- B. I should eat a banana every day to increase my potassium intake.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience a cough.
- D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.
2. A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will avoid eating foods that contain tyramine.''
- B. ''I should increase my salt intake while taking this medication.''
- C. ''I should drink at least 2 liters of water each day while taking this medication.''
- D. ''I should avoid consuming caffeinated beverages while taking this medication.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Drinking at least 2 liters of water daily is crucial for clients taking lithium to prevent dehydration and lithium toxicity. Lithium is a salt, so it's important for clients to maintain adequate hydration. Option A is incorrect because lithium does not interact with tyramine-containing foods. Option B is incorrect because increasing salt intake is not necessary and can actually exacerbate lithium toxicity. Option D is incorrect because avoiding caffeinated beverages is not a priority teaching point for clients taking lithium.
3. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I have my eyes examined annually.
- B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
- C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
- D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Platelet count
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, International normalized ratio (INR). INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the INR helps assess how well the medication is working to prevent blood clots. Choices A, B, and C are not specific indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count evaluates the clotting ability of blood, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. While these values are important for overall health assessment, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
5. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access