a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and reports frequent nausea and vomiting which of the following instructions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.

2. A client with hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Choosing fresh fruits and vegetables is a healthy choice for someone with hypertension as they are low in sodium and high in nutrients. Processed meats (A) are high in sodium and unhealthy fats, which can worsen hypertension. Canned vegetables (B) often have added sodium, so fresh is a better choice. Canned soups (D) are typically high in sodium and should be limited in a hypertensive diet.

3. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to keep the leg abductor pillow in place while in bed. This intervention helps prevent hip dislocation by maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Placing a wedge under the client's affected leg (Choice A) may not provide adequate support and could potentially compromise the surgical site. Keeping the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle (Choice B) or positioning the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated (Choice C) are not recommended post total hip arthroplasty as they may increase the risk of hip dislocation.

5. What is the appropriate diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low protein diet is the appropriate choice for a patient with chronic kidney disease because it helps to reduce the buildup of waste products in the body, which the kidneys may struggle to filter out. High protein diets can put extra strain on the kidneys by increasing the workload to eliminate the byproducts of protein metabolism. While low sodium and low potassium diets can also be important for managing certain aspects of kidney disease, the primary focus should be on controlling protein intake to lessen the burden on the kidneys.

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