a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome which of the following recommendations should the nurse include
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ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps alleviate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome by promoting regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who are lactose intolerant. Choice C is incorrect as fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high fructose content, which can be poorly absorbed in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as increasing foods high in gluten may be problematic for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who have gluten sensitivity or celiac disease.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with major depressive disorder who is taking fluoxetine. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A weight gain of 2.2 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate fluid retention, a serious side effect of fluoxetine that should be reported to the provider. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and are not alarming findings that would require immediate reporting to the provider. A heart rate of 80/min, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are all within normal limits and not typically concerning in a client taking fluoxetine.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Choice D is incorrect because aspirating for blood return is not necessary before administering a subcutaneous injection like enoxaparin.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

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