ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a new colostomy requires care planning by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days.
- B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is half full.
- C. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
- D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and leakage by maintaining a clean and secure seal around the stoma. Option B is incorrect because it is more important to change the pouch regularly rather than emptying it when half full. Option C is incorrect as applying a skin barrier is typically done during the initial application of the pouch, not during regular changes. Option D is incorrect because alcohol can be too harsh for the peristomal skin and can cause irritation.
2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.
3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Check urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.
5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
- B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
- C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
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