Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should increase your caloric intake by 600 calories per day.
• B. You should increase your caloric intake by 300 calories per day.
• C. You should maintain your prepregnancy caloric intake during the first trimester.
• D. You should increase your caloric intake by 150 calories per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
• B. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall.
• C. Massage the injection site after administration.
• D. Discard the prefilled syringe after expelling the air bubble.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall when administering enoxaparin. This is the recommended technique to ensure proper absorption and prevent tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended, as it can cause bruising and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because the prefilled syringe should not be discarded after expelling the air bubble; it should be used for the injection.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 4,500/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 250,000/mm3
• D. Platelet count 100,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.

4. What is the best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Monitor blood pressure
• D. Monitor edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics is to monitor daily weight. Daily weighing is a precise way to assess changes in fluid status as it reflects variations in total body water. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide as accurate a measurement as daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is essential but does not directly measure fluid balance. Monitoring edema (choice D) is helpful to assess fluid status visually but may not be as sensitive as daily weight measurements in detecting subtle changes in fluid balance.

5. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?

• A. Monitor blood glucose
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.

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