ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught by a nurse about measures to improve breathing. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity
- B. Breathe deeply and quickly during exercise
- C. Avoid using the incentive spirometer
- D. Avoid physical activity to conserve energy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a technique that helps improve breathing efficiency in individuals with COPD by preventing airway collapse and allowing for better air exchange. Choice B is incorrect because breathing deeply and quickly can lead to hyperventilation and worsen symptoms in COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect because the incentive spirometer is a device used to encourage deep breathing and improve lung function, so it should not be avoided. Choice D is incorrect because physical activity is important for maintaining overall health and should be encouraged in a controlled and appropriate manner for individuals with COPD.
3. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?
- A. When the client is hypotensive
- B. When the client is irritable
- C. When the client is flushed
- D. When the client is bradycardic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.
4. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to bear down
- B. Apply the external fetal monitor
- C. Provide the client with fluids
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.
5. What is the best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care?
- A. Instruct the client to rest completely and avoid all self-care tasks
- B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
- C. Assign assistive personnel to complete all self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care tasks
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care is to encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue effectively. Choice A is incorrect because complete rest without any self-care tasks may hinder recovery and independence. Choice C is not the best option as it does not promote the client's independence. Choice D, while involving family support, does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.
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