Nursing Elites

1. What is the best way to assess for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Check daily weight
• B. Check blood pressure
• C. Monitor heart sounds
• D. Assess for jugular vein distention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check daily weight.' Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess for fluid overload in patients with heart failure. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Checking blood pressure (Choice B) can provide information about hemodynamic status but may not be as specific for fluid overload as monitoring weight. Monitoring heart sounds (Choice C) can provide information about cardiac function but may not directly assess fluid overload. Assessing for jugular vein distention (Choice D) can be a sign of increased central venous pressure but may not always correlate with fluid overload as accurately as daily weight checks.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
• B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
• C. Discuss with the client their inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
• D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it helps justify the need for seclusion, provides a clear record of events leading up to the intervention, and ensures transparency in the client's care. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for hydration but is not directly related to the situation of seclusion. Discussing the inappropriate behavior with the client (Choice C) may not be safe or appropriate when seclusion is necessary for preventing harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but may not be the most immediate action needed when seclusion is already in place.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Apply compression stockings
• C. Encourage ambulation
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected DVT because it helps prevent further clot formation and complications. Applying compression stockings (choice B) can be a preventive measure but is not the primary intervention for treating DVT. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for DVT treatment.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glucose 180 mg/dL
• B. Sodium 136 mEq/L
• C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
• D. Albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

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