Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the client's respiratory rate.
• B. Administer naloxone.
• C. Check the client's pain level.
• D. Assess the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Checking the client's respiratory rate is the priority before administering morphine because morphine can depress respiration. This action helps the healthcare professional assess the client's baseline respiratory status and detect any potential respiratory depression that may be exacerbated by morphine. Choice B, administering naloxone, is incorrect because naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose and not routinely administered before giving morphine. Choice C, checking the client's pain level, is important but not the first action to take before administering morphine. Choice D, assessing the client's blood pressure, is also important but not the initial priority compared to evaluating respiratory status when preparing to administer morphine.

2. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?

• A. The PCA will deliver a double dose of medication when you push the button twice.
• B. Continuous PCA infusion is designed to allow fluctuating plasma medication levels.
• C. You should push the button before physical activity to allow maximum pain control.
• D. You can adjust the amount of pain medication you receive by pushing on the keypad.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Blood glucose level
• C. Serum albumin level
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

4. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing confusion after surgery?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing confusion after surgery because it helps alleviate hypoxia, which may be causing the patient's confusion. Repositioning the patient would not directly address the potential hypoxia issue. Administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration or other reasons but is not the initial priority in addressing confusion post-surgery. Performing a neurological exam may be important later on to assess the patient's neurological status but should not be the first action taken when confusion is present.

5. A nurse is caring for an adult client who has prescriptions for multiple medications. Which of the following is an age-related change that increases the risk for adverse effects from these medications?

• A. Rapid gastric emptying
• B. Prolonged medication half-life
• C. Increased medication elimination
• D. Decreased medication sensitivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prolonged medication half-life. As clients age, their metabolism tends to slow down, leading to a prolonged half-life of medications in the body. This extended presence of drugs can increase the risk for adverse effects as the substances accumulate. Choice A, rapid gastric emptying, is not an age-related change and actually decreases the time medications spend in the stomach, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Choice C, increased medication elimination, is not an age-related change either; in fact, aging can lead to decreased renal function, affecting drug elimination. Choice D, decreased medication sensitivity, is not an age-related change that directly increases the risk for adverse effects; rather, it may lead to requiring higher doses for effectiveness but does not inherently increase the risk of adverse effects.

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