a nurse is preparing to administer an iv bolus of morphine to a client which of the following actions should the nurse take first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Checking the client's respiratory rate is the priority before administering morphine because morphine can depress respiration. This action helps the healthcare professional assess the client's baseline respiratory status and detect any potential respiratory depression that may be exacerbated by morphine. Choice B, administering naloxone, is incorrect because naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose and not routinely administered before giving morphine. Choice C, checking the client's pain level, is important but not the first action to take before administering morphine. Choice D, assessing the client's blood pressure, is also important but not the initial priority compared to evaluating respiratory status when preparing to administer morphine.

2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lean beef.' Lean beef is a good source of protein, which is essential for a balanced diet. While carrots and bananas are healthy food choices, they are not specifically recommended for clients with hypertension. Whole grains are a better alternative to refined grains for individuals with hypertension, but lean beef is a more suitable recommendation due to its protein content.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

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