a nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Undermining.' Undermining occurs when the tissue under the wound edges erodes, indicating poor healing progress. This finding should be reported to the provider as it suggests delayed wound healing and may require intervention. Choice A, 'Eschar,' is a thick, hard, black/brown necrotic tissue that forms over a wound. While it indicates a non-healing wound, it is not as concerning as undermining. Choice B, 'Slough,' is a soft, moist, yellow/white tissue that is also a sign of necrosis. While the presence of slough indicates the need for wound cleaning and debridement, it is not as critical to report as undermining. Choice C, 'Granulation tissue,' is new tissue that forms during wound healing and is a positive sign. The presence of granulation tissue indicates that the wound is progressing through the healing stages and is not a finding that requires immediate reporting to the provider.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), tachycardia is a common finding. This is due to the body's compensatory mechanisms in response to the increased pressure. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with increased ICP and may indicate a different issue. Increased level of consciousness (choice B) is unlikely with increased ICP, as it often leads to altered mental status. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not directly related to increased ICP and are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

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