a nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Undermining.' Undermining occurs when the tissue under the wound edges erodes, indicating poor healing progress. This finding should be reported to the provider as it suggests delayed wound healing and may require intervention. Choice A, 'Eschar,' is a thick, hard, black/brown necrotic tissue that forms over a wound. While it indicates a non-healing wound, it is not as concerning as undermining. Choice B, 'Slough,' is a soft, moist, yellow/white tissue that is also a sign of necrosis. While the presence of slough indicates the need for wound cleaning and debridement, it is not as critical to report as undermining. Choice C, 'Granulation tissue,' is new tissue that forms during wound healing and is a positive sign. The presence of granulation tissue indicates that the wound is progressing through the healing stages and is not a finding that requires immediate reporting to the provider.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the collection device below the client's chest. This positioning ensures proper drainage of fluid from the chest, preventing backflow of fluids. Clamping the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed is incorrect as it can lead to fluid accumulation and potential complications. Emptying the drainage system every 8 hours is necessary but not the priority over maintaining proper positioning. Stripping the chest tube every 4 hours is an outdated practice and can cause damage to the tissue and should be avoided.

3. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about food choices to increase iron intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Spinach is an excellent choice to recommend as it is rich in non-heme iron, which can help improve iron levels in clients with iron deficiency anemia. Eggs (Choice A) are a good source of protein but do not contain as much iron as spinach. Carrots (Choice B) are rich in vitamin A but are not a significant source of iron. White bread (Choice C) is not a good source of iron compared to spinach.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.

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