ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the solution slowly over 24 hours
- B. Assess the client's lung sounds before administration
- C. Change the IV tubing every 12 hours
- D. Flush the IV line with 2 mL of heparin every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who reports a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Use non-latex gloves when administering the medication.
- C. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
- D. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer an IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This measure helps prevent allergic reactions in clients with a known latex allergy. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing a latex allergy reaction. Using non-latex gloves (Choice B) is important for protecting the nurse or caregiver from latex exposure but does not prevent the client's allergic reaction. While using latex-free syringes (Choice C) is a good practice, ensuring the IV port is latex-free is more crucial in preventing an allergic response in the client.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Gastric residual of 200 mL or more
- B. pH of gastric contents is 5.0
- C. Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants
- D. Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Serum glucose level.
- B. Serum calcium level.
- C. Lymphocyte count.
- D. Serum potassium level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, elevated cortisol levels lead to increased gluconeogenesis, insulin resistance, and breakdown of proteins and fats, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. This is known as hyperglycemia. The other options, including serum calcium level (choice B), lymphocyte count (choice C), and serum potassium level (choice D), are not typically affected by Cushing's disease. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
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