a nurse is preparing to administer an iv bolus of 09 sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated which of the following actions should the nurse tak
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who reports a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer an IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This measure helps prevent allergic reactions in clients with a known latex allergy. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing a latex allergy reaction. Using non-latex gloves (Choice B) is important for protecting the nurse or caregiver from latex exposure but does not prevent the client's allergic reaction. While using latex-free syringes (Choice C) is a good practice, ensuring the IV port is latex-free is more crucial in preventing an allergic response in the client.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week is an indication of fluid retention, which is concerning in a client with preeclampsia. This can be a sign of worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. High blood pressure (option A) is expected in preeclampsia, a urine output of 30 mL/hr (option C) is decreased but not as urgent as the weight gain in this scenario, and a respiratory rate of 16/min (option D) is within normal limits.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.

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