ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. How should signs of infection in a post-surgical patient be assessed?
- A. Check the surgical site
- B. Check the patient's vital signs
- C. Monitor for fever
- D. Check for abnormal breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the surgical site is crucial in identifying early signs of infection post-surgery. Changes such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage may indicate an infection developing. While monitoring vital signs and fever are important in infection assessment, they are general indicators and may not show localized signs at the surgical site. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is more relevant when assessing respiratory issues rather than infection at the surgical site.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates the need for suctioning?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Oxygen saturation 96%.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Productive cough.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate. An increased respiratory rate suggests the client is having difficulty clearing secretions and may require suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Clear lung sounds suggest good air entry without the need for suctioning. A productive cough, although a symptom of pneumonia, does not directly indicate the need for suctioning.
3. A nurse is preparing to perform a bladder scan for a client who has overflow incontinence. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Obtain a prescription for insertion of an indwelling catheter.
- C. Cleanse the client's abdomen with an antiseptic solution.
- D. Prepare the client for urinary catheterization.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for urinary catheterization. Overflow incontinence may indicate bladder distention, where a bladder scan helps assess the need for catheterization. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to the procedure. Obtaining a prescription for an indwelling catheter (Choice B) is not necessary before performing a bladder scan. Cleansing the client's abdomen with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is not specific to preparing for a bladder scan in this situation.
4. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. White blood cell count 8,000/mm³
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
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