a nurse is caring for a client who has a hemoglobin level of 7 gdl which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client has a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pale, cool skin is a common finding in clients with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity. Bounding pulses (Choice A) are not typically associated with low hemoglobin levels. Elevated blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common finding in clients with anemia. While headache (Choice C) can occur with anemia, it is not a specific finding directly related to a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient for infection post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the surgical site is crucial to identify early signs of infection post-surgery. Redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge at the surgical site can indicate an infection. While monitoring for fever (choice B) is important as fever can also be a sign of infection, it may not always present immediately post-surgery. Checking blood pressure (choice C) is essential for other purposes but not specifically for monitoring infection post-surgery. Checking for redness (choice D) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection, so it is not as comprehensive as monitoring the surgical site.

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