ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client has a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulses
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Pale, cool skin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pale, cool skin is a common finding in clients with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity. Bounding pulses (Choice A) are not typically associated with low hemoglobin levels. Elevated blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common finding in clients with anemia. While headache (Choice C) can occur with anemia, it is not a specific finding directly related to a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.
2. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Start IV fluids
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial to help dilate the airways and improve breathing. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the most critical interventions during an acute asthma attack.
3. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
- B. Semi-Fowler's position
- C. Trendelenburg position
- D. Prone position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.
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