Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Diaphoresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the body's response to low blood sugar. During hypoglycemia, the body releases epinephrine, leading to sympathetic nervous system activation. This can result in bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism to preserve glucose for vital organs such as the brain. Tachycardia, hypotension, and diaphoresis are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia when it progresses to severe stages and the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed.

2. A client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction expresses concern about fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote self-care?

• A. Ask family members to assist with all self-care tasks
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
• C. Instruct the client to remain in bed until fully rested
• D. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote self-care for a client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction and is experiencing fatigue. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue. Asking family members to assist with all self-care tasks (Choice A) may hinder the client's independence. Instructing the client to remain in bed until fully rested (Choice C) may lead to deconditioning and dependency. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client (Choice D) does not empower the client to regain independence or actively participate in self-care.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

4. What are common signs of hypoglycemia?

• A. Shakiness or Tremors
• B. Sweating
• C. Hunger
• D. Confusion or Irritability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness or tremors, sweating, and hunger. These symptoms indicate low blood sugar levels. Confusion or irritability are more associated with severe hypoglycemia, while the immediate treatment for hypoglycemia involves providing a source of glucose to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

5. A healthcare professional is managing a client with a wound infection. What is the priority action?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 12 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
• C. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound
• D. Cleanse the wound with a solution of alcohol and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This helps in selecting the most effective antibiotics for treatment. Changing the wound dressing, applying a wet-to-dry dressing, or cleansing the wound are important interventions but should follow the assessment and identification of the infecting organism through a wound culture to guide appropriate treatment.

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