Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for an abdominal paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take to prepare the client for this procedure?

• A. Assist the client to void
• B. Instruct the client to hold their breath
• C. Place the client in a lateral recumbent position
• D. Prepare to administer a sedative

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to void before a paracentesis is essential to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure. Voiding helps empty the bladder, preventing accidental puncture during the insertion of the needle. Instructing the client to hold their breath is incorrect and can increase the risk of complications. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position is not directly related to bladder safety during a paracentesis. Preparing to administer a sedative is not a standard preparation for this procedure and is not aimed at preventing bladder injury.

2. Which of the following findings indicates a need for immediate attention in a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Confusion and disorientation that resolve with rest
• B. A blood pressure reading of 110/70
• C. Irritability and agitation that worsen throughout the day
• D. Mild confusion during the evening hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Irritability and agitation that worsen throughout the day. These symptoms are concerning in a client diagnosed with delirium as they may indicate an exacerbation of the condition or an underlying cause that requires immediate attention. Option A describes symptoms that resolve with rest, which may not be as urgent. Option B provides a normal blood pressure reading, which is not typically associated with immediate attention in delirium cases. Option D describes mild confusion during specific hours, which may not be as critical as worsening symptoms throughout the day.

3. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

• A. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone
• B. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day
• C. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge
• D. The client says she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

4. What are the primary causes of respiratory acidosis?

• A. Hypoventilation and lung disease
• B. Hyperventilation and pneumonia
• C. Increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea
• D. Dehydration and hypoxia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoventilation and lung disease. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of CO2 in the body due to inadequate ventilation. Hypoventilation, which reduces the elimination of CO2, and lung diseases that impair gas exchange are the primary causes. Choice B is incorrect because hyperventilation, not hypoventilation, leads to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice C is incorrect because increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea do not directly cause respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration and hypoxia do not typically lead to respiratory acidosis.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

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