ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.
3. Which dietary advice should a healthcare provider provide to a client with acute gout?
- A. Increase intake of dairy products
- B. Limit intake of red meat and shellfish
- C. Limit intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
- D. Limit intake of fruit juices and milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dietary advice for a client with acute gout is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can lead to increased uric acid levels in the body, exacerbating gout symptoms. Dairy products, fresh fruits, and vegetables are generally recommended for individuals with gout as they can help lower uric acid levels. Fruit juices and milk, in moderation, can also be part of a gout-friendly diet as they do not significantly contribute to uric acid buildup.
4. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
- B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
- C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
- D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
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