a nurse is teaching a client who has irritable bowel syndrome ibs about dietary modifications which of the following instructions should the nurse inc
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Eat small, frequent meals.' Eating small, frequent meals helps manage IBS symptoms by avoiding overloading the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because increasing fiber intake may worsen symptoms in some individuals with IBS. Choice B is not a blanket recommendation for all IBS patients; some may tolerate dairy products well. Choice D is incorrect as fruits and vegetables are important sources of nutrients and should not be completely avoided unless specific triggers are identified.

2. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged home following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following documents should the nurse plan to include with the discharge report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complications to report. Including potential complications in the discharge report is crucial for ensuring proper follow-up care. This information helps the client and their caregivers to be aware of warning signs that may indicate a worsening condition or the need for immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of discharge planning, but providing a list of potential complications to report takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's safety and well-being post-discharge.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

5. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

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