what are the primary symptoms of left sided heart failure
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. What is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to pump effectively leads to fluid backing up into the lungs, causing difficulty breathing. Edema (swelling), rapid heartbeat, and confusion are more commonly associated with other conditions or right-sided heart failure. Edema is often seen in right-sided heart failure due to fluid accumulation in the body, rapid heartbeat can be a general sign of heart issues, and confusion is more related to decreased brain perfusion in severe heart failure cases.

2. When providing discharge instructions for a client with home oxygen, what safety measure should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the oxygen equipment at least 6 feet away from heat sources. Placing oxygen equipment near heat sources can lead to fire hazards due to the oxygen's combustible nature. Option A is the correct safety measure as smoking near oxygen equipment can cause fires due to oxygen's flammable properties. Option B regarding the use of non-flammable bedding is not directly related to oxygen safety. Option C is important for proper oxygen tank functioning but is not as critical as keeping the equipment away from heat sources to prevent fires.

3. What should be done to minimize the risk of injury for a client with dementia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client has consistent caregivers. This helps reduce confusion and stress for clients with dementia by providing familiarity and routine. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice B) may not directly address the risk of injury. Allowing the client to sleep with the bedrails raised (Choice C) can pose a risk if not properly monitored. Encouraging family members to stay with the client (Choice D) may not always be feasible and may not provide the necessary professional support and consistency that consistent caregivers can offer.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-protein diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys may have difficulty filtering waste products from protein metabolism, leading to a buildup of toxins in the body. Therefore, reducing protein intake can help lessen the workload on the kidneys. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet would increase the workload on the kidneys, while a low-sodium diet is beneficial for conditions like hypertension or heart failure but not specifically targeted for chronic kidney disease. A high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention and hypertension in patients with kidney disease.

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