ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
- A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
- B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
- C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
- D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
2. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?
- A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
- B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
- C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
- D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.
3. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?
- A. Eat a light breakfast only
- B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
- C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
- D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.
4. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?
- A. Adhering to primary tumor cells
- B. Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
- C. Phagocytizing healthy cells
- D. Invading healthy host tissues
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.
5. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?
- A. Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the protection you need against breast cancer.
- B. Research has shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
- C. Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
- D. Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in women who are at high risk, particularly those with a family history of the disease or a positive genetic test for BRCA mutations. Large-scale studies have demonstrated that tamoxifen can reduce the incidence of breast cancer by up to 50% in high-risk women. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, which helps prevent the development of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancers.
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