following an extensive diagnostic workup an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome mds what assessment quest
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Nursing Elites

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Oncology Test Bank

1. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

2. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the nurse would expect to note an increased calcium level in the laboratory results. This elevation is due to bone destruction caused by the disease, releasing calcium into the bloodstream. Increased white blood cells (Choice B) are not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Additionally, a decreased blood urea nitrogen level (Choice C) is not a common finding in this disorder. Multiple myeloma is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to an increased number of plasma cells, not a decreased number (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is an increased calcium level.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

4. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

5. Nurse Mandy is teaching a client about the side effects of radiation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fatigue is one of the most frequent and profound side effects of radiation therapy. It often occurs because radiation can damage both cancerous and healthy cells, and the body requires energy to repair the damage caused by the treatment. Fatigue from radiation can be cumulative, meaning it may worsen as treatments progress, and can significantly affect the client’s daily activities, requiring the nurse to educate the client on energy conservation techniques.

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