Nursing Elites

1. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

2. An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old man who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The patient denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this patient to be assessed for what health problem?

• A. Hodgkin disease
• B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
• C. Multiple myeloma
• D. Acute thrombocythemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is multiple myeloma (choice C). Back pain is a common presenting symptom in multiple myeloma, especially in older patients. This malignancy can lead to bone pain due to bone destruction and fractures. Hodgkin disease (choice A) and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (choice B) typically present with symptoms like painless lymph node enlargement, fever, and weight loss. Acute thrombocythemia (choice D) is characterized by an increase in platelet count but is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the patient.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?

• A. Administering iron supplements
• B. Administering blood transfusions
• C. Providing a high-iron diet
• D. Administering erythropoietin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.

4. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

5. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?

• A. Adhering to primary tumor cells
• B. Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
• C. Phagocytizing healthy cells
• D. Invading healthy host tissues

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.

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