Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving intravenous dopamine. What is the most important nursing assessment?

• A. Monitor heart rate and rhythm
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor respiratory rate
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate and rhythm when a client is receiving intravenous dopamine. Dopamine is known to potentially cause arrhythmias, making this assessment crucial. While monitoring blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important nursing assessments, they are not the most critical when dopamine is being administered.

2. Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery?

• A. Pulmonary valve
• B. Aortic valve
• C. Tricuspid valve
• D. Mitral valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Pulmonary valve. The Pulmonary valve prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery after it has been ejected. The Aortic valve (choice B) prevents backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle. The Tricuspid valve (choice C) prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium from the right ventricle. The Mitral valve (choice D) prevents backflow from the left ventricle into the left atrium.

3. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

4. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer potassium supplements.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Decrease the dose of furosemide.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

5. A client on an ACE inhibitor reports a persistent cough. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Reassure the client that the cough is a common side effect and is usually not serious.
• B. Instruct the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider as it may require discontinuation of the medication.
• C. Advise the client to use a humidifier at night to relieve the cough.
• D. Suggest the client take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent cough in a client on an ACE inhibitor may indicate a serious side effect that requires discontinuation of the medication. Instructing the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider is essential for proper evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client may delay necessary action. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier may not address the underlying cause of the cough. Choice D is incorrect because taking a cough suppressant without healthcare provider guidance may mask symptoms without addressing the cause.

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