Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Creatinine
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

2. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Increase the dose of digoxin.
• C. Continue the current dose of digoxin.
• D. Administer potassium supplements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.

3. What procedure is used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung disease?

• A. Bronchoscopy
• B. Thoracentesis
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bronchoscopy is the correct answer because it is a procedure specifically designed to visualize the airways and diagnose lung diseases by allowing doctors to examine the inside of the airways. Thoracentesis involves the removal of fluid from the pleural space around the lungs, not the airways. Pulmonary function tests assess how well the lungs work but do not visualize the airways directly. A chest X-ray provides an image of the lungs and surrounding structures but does not involve direct visualization of the airways.

4. Which term refers to the relaxation phase of the heart, during which the chambers fill with blood?

• A. Diastole
• B. Systole
• C. Refractoriness
• D. Automaticity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Diastole. Diastole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. Choice B, Systole, is incorrect as systole is the contraction phase of the heart when blood is pumped out of the chambers. Choice C, Refractoriness, refers to a period during which the heart muscle is unresponsive to stimuli. Choice D, Automaticity, relates to the heart's ability to generate its own electrical impulses.

5. What is a condition characterized by the presence of air or gas in the pleural space, leading to the collapse of the lung?

• A. Pneumothorax
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Atelectasis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Pneumothorax. Pneumothorax occurs when air or gas accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. This condition can result in symptoms such as chest pain and difficulty breathing. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by a blood clot. Pleural effusion (choice C) is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural space, not air or gas. Atelectasis (choice D) refers to the collapse or closure of a lung resulting in reduced or absent gas exchange.

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