Nursing Elites

1. What procedure is used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung disease?

• A. Bronchoscopy
• B. Thoracentesis
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bronchoscopy is the correct answer because it is a procedure specifically designed to visualize the airways and diagnose lung diseases by allowing doctors to examine the inside of the airways. Thoracentesis involves the removal of fluid from the pleural space around the lungs, not the airways. Pulmonary function tests assess how well the lungs work but do not visualize the airways directly. A chest X-ray provides an image of the lungs and surrounding structures but does not involve direct visualization of the airways.

2. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Continue the current digoxin dose
• D. Administer Digibind

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a potassium supplement (choice A) without healthcare provider guidance can worsen the situation. Continuing the current digoxin dose (choice C) can further increase the risk of toxicity. Administering Digibind (choice D) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity, not for addressing low potassium levels.

3. For what reason might the nurse be given an order to administer milrinone (Primacor)?

• A. For congestive heart failure
• B. For hypertension
• C. For cardiac arrhythmias
• D. For bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Milrinone is commonly prescribed for congestive heart failure to help improve cardiac function and alleviate symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as milrinone is not typically used for hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, or bradycardia. It is specifically indicated for congestive heart failure for short-term management.

4. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

5. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

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