ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf
1. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.
- A. Cardiac Index
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Ejection fraction
- D. Cardiac output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.
2. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.
3. For what reason might the nurse be given an order to administer milrinone (Primacor)?
- A. For congestive heart failure
- B. For hypertension
- C. For cardiac arrhythmias
- D. For bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Milrinone is commonly prescribed for congestive heart failure to help improve cardiac function and alleviate symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as milrinone is not typically used for hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, or bradycardia. It is specifically indicated for congestive heart failure for short-term management.
4. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client for DVT prophylaxis, what is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. PT/INR
- C. aPTT
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count as enoxaparin can lead to thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because PT/INR, aPTT, and hemoglobin levels are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration and DVT prophylaxis.
5. What is a condition where the alveoli are gradually destroyed, leading to shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange?
- A. Emphysema
- B. Pulmonary fibrosis
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Lung cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition where the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs are damaged, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. This destruction leads to symptoms like shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange. Choice B, pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring and thickening of the lung tissue, not destruction of alveoli. Choice C, pulmonary edema, is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli. Choice D, lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli.
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