this is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion it represents the cardiac output in terms of liter per minute per square meter of body surface a
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.

2. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

3. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

4. Which term describes an abnormal heartbeat that can be either too fast or too slow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arrhythmia. Arrhythmia is a broad term that refers to any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, which can manifest as a heartbeat that is too fast (tachycardia), too slow (bradycardia), or irregular. Choice B, Bradycardia, specifically denotes a slow heart rate, while choice C, Tachycardia, refers to a fast heart rate. Choice D, Conductivity, is not the correct term to describe an abnormal heartbeat characterized by speed irregularities.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What is the priority assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's blood pressure. Before administering a beta blocker to a client with hypertension, assessing the blood pressure is crucial because beta blockers can cause hypotension, potentially leading to adverse effects. Checking the heart rate may also be important but is secondary to monitoring the blood pressure in this scenario. Respiratory rate and temperature assessments are not directly related to assessing the client's response to a beta blocker in hypertension management, making choices C and D less relevant.

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