the client on warfarin has an inr of 45 what is the most appropriate action by the nurse
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

2. What condition is characterized by narrowed or blocked arteries in the legs or arms, leading to pain and mobility issues?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral artery disease (PAD). PAD is a condition where the arteries in the legs or arms become narrowed or blocked, leading to pain and mobility issues. Choice B, Atherosclerosis, refers to the buildup of fats, cholesterol, and other substances in and on the artery walls, not specifically the narrowing or blockage in the extremities. Choice C, Raynaud's disease, is characterized by reduced blood flow to the extremities, leading to coldness, numbness, and color changes in the skin, but it is not primarily about narrowed or blocked arteries. Choice D, Varicose veins, involves enlarged, twisted veins usually in the legs, but it is not related to narrowed or blocked arteries causing pain and mobility issues.

3. Which term describes an abnormal heartbeat that can be either too fast or too slow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arrhythmia. Arrhythmia is a broad term that refers to any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, which can manifest as a heartbeat that is too fast (tachycardia), too slow (bradycardia), or irregular. Choice B, Bradycardia, specifically denotes a slow heart rate, while choice C, Tachycardia, refers to a fast heart rate. Choice D, Conductivity, is not the correct term to describe an abnormal heartbeat characterized by speed irregularities.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.

5. What is the condition where the blood flow through the coronary arteries is reduced or blocked, leading to chest pain or heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD occurs when the coronary arteries are narrowed or blocked, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of chest pain or heart attack. Choice B, Atherosclerosis, is a condition characterized by the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to the buildup of plaque. Choices C and D, Pulmonary embolism and Pulmonary hypertension, involve issues related to the lungs and not the coronary arteries.

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