the client on warfarin has an inr of 45 what is the most appropriate action by the nurse
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

2. In cases of myocardial infarction leading to shock, which medication is appropriate to counteract shock?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of myocardial infarction leading to shock, dopamine is the drug of choice. Dopamine helps increase blood pressure and improve blood flow to vital organs, making it beneficial in managing shock. Atropine is mainly used for symptomatic bradycardia, not for shock. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in heart failure and atrial fibrillation, not for managing shock. Adenosine is typically used for diagnosing and treating supraventricular tachycardias, not for shock associated with myocardial infarction.

3. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client for DVT prophylaxis, what is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count as enoxaparin can lead to thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because PT/INR, aPTT, and hemoglobin levels are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration and DVT prophylaxis.

4. What condition involves a weakened and bulging aorta, the main artery in the body, potentially leading to rupture?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aortic aneurysm is a condition characterized by the weakening and bulging of the aorta, the body's main artery. If left untreated, this bulging may lead to a rupture, causing severe complications. Arterial stenosis refers to the narrowing of an artery, not the weakening and bulging seen in an aortic aneurysm. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which is different from the weakening and bulging in an aortic aneurysm. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, not related to the condition described in the question.

5. What is a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily blocked, often referred to as a mini-stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is the correct answer. A TIA is often referred to as a mini-stroke because it is caused by a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. This blockage resolves on its own, typically within minutes to hours, leading to temporary symptoms similar to a stroke. Option B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow to the brain. Option C, 'Aneurysm,' is incorrect as it is a bulge in a blood vessel that can rupture and cause bleeding, not a temporary blockage of blood flow. Option D, 'Myocardial infarction,' is also incorrect as it refers to a heart attack, not a condition involving the brain's blood flow.

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