Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a heart client on digoxin and notes a potassium level of 2.5. What is the appropriate priority nursing intervention?

• A. Do nothing as this is a normal potassium level.
• B. The potassium level is low so the nurse asks for an order for potassium.
• C. The nurse asks to check the digoxin level as low potassium can increase digoxin toxicity.
• D. The nurse stops the digoxin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When caring for a client on digoxin with a low potassium level, the priority nursing intervention is to check the digoxin level. Low potassium can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Checking the digoxin level will help determine if any adjustments to the medication regimen are needed to prevent potential harm. Choice A is incorrect as a potassium level of 2.5 is low, not normal. Choice B is not the priority as simply giving potassium may not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Choice D is not the initial action to take without assessing the digoxin level first.

2. This term refers to a change in the inotropic state of the muscle without a change in myocardial fiber length.

• A. Contractility
• B. Excitability
• C. Refractoriness
• D. Automaticity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractility. Contractility specifically refers to the change in the force of contraction of the heart muscle without changing its length. In this scenario, the focus is on the change in the inotropic state of the muscle, which directly relates to contractility. Choice B, Excitability, refers to the ability of a cell to respond to a stimulus, not specifically related to changes in contractile force. Choice C, Refractoriness, pertains to the period during which a cell is unresponsive to a new stimulus. Choice D, Automaticity, refers to the ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses.

3. Which disease is characterized by the damage to the alveoli in the lungs, leading to breathlessness?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Lung cancer
• D. Lung abscess

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Emphysema. Emphysema is a lung condition characterized by the damage to the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs, which results in breathlessness and reduced lung function. Pulmonary fibrosis (B) is a condition where lung tissue becomes damaged and scarred, leading to stiffness in the lungs. Lung cancer (C) is a malignancy affecting the lungs, which can cause various symptoms depending on the stage. Lung abscess (D) is a localized collection of pus within the lung tissue, typically caused by a bacterial infection.

4. What is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space to help a patient breathe easier?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where fluid or air is removed from the pleural space in the chest to help the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways, while Chest X-ray (choice C) and CT scan (choice D) are imaging tests and do not involve the removal of fluid or air from the pleural space.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?

• A. Severe headache
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Seizures
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.

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