the client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis what action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis, a serious side effect, the immediate action the nurse should take is to notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial because pulmonary fibrosis can lead to severe respiratory compromise and requires prompt evaluation and management by the healthcare provider. Continuing the medication (choice B) can worsen the condition, and delaying action by reducing the dose and monitoring respiratory status (choice D) may not be appropriate given the seriousness of pulmonary fibrosis. Discontinuing the medication and starting oxygen therapy (choice C) may be necessary, but the priority is to notify the healthcare provider first for further assessment and guidance.

2. Which type of lung cancer is strongly associated with exposure to asbestos?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Mesothelioma. This type of lung cancer is indeed strongly associated with exposure to asbestos, affecting the lining of the lungs or abdomen. Adenocarcinoma, Squamous cell carcinoma, and Small cell lung cancer are not primarily linked to asbestos exposure, making them incorrect choices for this question.

3. Which condition involves the body's immune system attacking the lungs and kidneys, causing severe respiratory and renal damage?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Goodpasture syndrome is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease characterized by the immune system attacking the lungs and kidneys, leading to bleeding in the lungs and kidney failure. Sarcoidosis primarily affects the lungs and lymph nodes, not the kidneys. Wegener's granulomatosis affects the lungs, sinuses, and kidneys, but it is characterized by inflammation of blood vessels. Interstitial lung disease involves scarring of the lung tissue, not direct immune system attacks on the lungs and kidneys.

4. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart over a 24- or 48-hour period?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Holter monitor. A Holter monitor is a portable device that continuously records the heart's electrical activity over 24 to 48 hours, aiding in the diagnosis of arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, an Electrocardiogram, provides a snapshot of the heart's electrical activity at a specific point in time, not over an extended period like a Holter monitor. Choice C, a Stress test, measures how the heart responds to physical activity and is not used for continuous monitoring of electrical activity. Choice D, a Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, not to measure the heart's electrical activity.

5. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

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