Nursing Elites

1. What is a condition where the alveoli are gradually destroyed, leading to shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Pulmonary edema
• D. Lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition where the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs are damaged, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. This destruction leads to symptoms like shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange. Choice B, pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring and thickening of the lung tissue, not destruction of alveoli. Choice C, pulmonary edema, is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli. Choice D, lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli.

2. What structure separates the left and right sides of the heart?

• A. Interventricular septum
• B. Endocardium
• C. Epicardium
• D. Pericardium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The interventricular septum is the correct answer as it is the wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart, ensuring the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood do not mix. The endocardium is the inner lining of the heart chambers, the epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart wall, and the pericardium is the sac that surrounds the heart, providing protection and anchoring the heart in place. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of separating the left and right sides of the heart.

3. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

4. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer potassium supplements.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further management. Option B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen the hyperkalemia. Option C is incorrect as continuing spironolactone can lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose of spironolactone would be inappropriate in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

5. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Headache
• B. Flushing
• C. Dizziness
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

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