ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. What is a condition where the alveoli are gradually destroyed, leading to shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange?
- A. Emphysema
- B. Pulmonary fibrosis
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Lung cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition where the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs are damaged, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. This destruction leads to symptoms like shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange. Choice B, pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring and thickening of the lung tissue, not destruction of alveoli. Choice C, pulmonary edema, is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli. Choice D, lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli.
2. What is a condition where the heart beats too fast, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Arrhythmia
- D. Ventricular fibrillation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate, which can decrease the heart's efficiency in pumping blood. Bradycardia, on the other hand, refers to a slow heart rate, which is the opposite of what is described in the question. Arrhythmia is a general term for any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, not necessarily specifically related to a fast heart rate. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia where the heart's lower chambers quiver instead of pumping blood effectively, but it is not specifically characterized by a fast heart rate.
3. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client for DVT prophylaxis, what is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. PT/INR
- C. aPTT
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count as enoxaparin can lead to thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because PT/INR, aPTT, and hemoglobin levels are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration and DVT prophylaxis.
4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.
5. What is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by contracting?
- A. Excitability
- B. Contractility
- C. Rhythmicity
- D. Conductivity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excitability is the correct term that describes the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by contracting. Excitability refers to the cell's ability to respond to stimuli and generate an action potential. Choice B, Contractility, is incorrect as it refers to the ability of cardiac cells to contract after receiving a stimulus, not the response to the impulse itself. Choice C, Rhythmicity, is incorrect as it pertains to the heart's ability to contract rhythmically without external stimulation. Choice D, Conductivity, is incorrect as it refers to the ability of cardiac cells to transmit an impulse from cell to cell, not the direct response to the impulse by contracting.
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