Nursing Elites

1. What is an infection that causes inflammation in the air sacs of one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Pleurisy
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pneumonia. Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid or pus, causing symptoms like cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Tuberculosis (B) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is caused by a different bacterium. Pleurisy (C) is inflammation of the tissues that line the lungs and chest cavity, not the air sacs. Pulmonary edema (D) is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs' air sacs but is often due to heart problems rather than an infection.

2. Which condition involves the tearing of the aorta, leading to severe pain and internal bleeding?

• A. Aortic dissection
• B. Aneurysm
• C. Stroke
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition where the inner layer of the aorta tears, causing severe chest or back pain and internal bleeding, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B, aneurysm, involves a bulging or weakening of a blood vessel wall, which is different from a tear in the aorta. Choices C and D, stroke and myocardial infarction, do not directly involve the tearing of the aorta and are distinct conditions.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

4. A client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
• C. Administer a diuretic to reduce blood pressure.
• D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure. Administering the beta blocker can potentially worsen the situation, leading to complications. Administering a diuretic or continuing to monitor the client without taking immediate action could delay necessary intervention. Therefore, holding the beta blocker and involving the healthcare provider promptly is crucial in this scenario.

5. Where is the impulse from the SA node delayed, enabling atrial contraction to complete before the ventricles are stimulated and contract?

• A. AV node
• B. Bundle of His
• C. SA node
• D. Aorta

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is AV node. The AV node is responsible for delaying the impulse from the SA node, allowing the atria to contract before the ventricles. This delay ensures the effective pumping of blood in a coordinated manner. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Bundle of His is responsible for transmitting the impulse to the Purkinje fibers, the SA node is the pacemaker of the heart responsible for initiating the heartbeat, and the aorta is the main artery carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the body, respectively, none of which are involved in delaying the impulse to allow atrial contraction before ventricular contraction.

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